a) Is the question IA worthy?
b) Is the way i am arguing effective? If so why? and if not, why not?
My question is 'To what extent did early 20th century racial science socially legitimise Nazi racial policy ?'
The point i will be trying to get across is that racial science at the time was bastardised by opportunistic politicians who were looking for a way to legitimise their own agendas via science. The reason that they were able to gather evidence that made it possible for them to implement racial policy came from a mutually beneficial relationship with various institutes that were willing to provide the research and results that would fit into 'Hitlers vision' so long as they reaped reward from it.
As europeans emerged from world war one, the first truly modern technological war, they became increasingly dependant on technology (and thus science) as a form of guidance. There fore when the government was able to back up their racial policies with science, people saw it as legitimate.
Thus early 20th century racial science was the main factor that served to legitimise and lead to the social sanction of nazi racial policy.
I would really appreciate your feedback .
thanks


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