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Portfolio Type I -- Patterns from Complex Numbers


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what does (generalize and prove your results for zn = a + bi, where /a+bi/ = 1) mean?

It's bullet point no. 11.

How can I generalize for it, because /a+bi/ = 1, means that zn = 1 or -1 or i or -i.

Thanks in advance. I need help urgently.

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It's essentially just generalise the roots of unity. So what are the roots of unity for zn? If you've done the other parts, I can't see this being too hard. Proving it would be harder, but definitely possible.

Remember that 1 = cis(2k pi)

Edited by timtamboy63
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It's essentially just generalise the roots of unity. So what are the roots of unity for zn? If you've done the other parts, I can't see this being too hard. Proving it would be harder, but definitely possible.

Remember that 1 = cis(2k pi)

The generalizing was easy, but I couldn't prove the conjecture for the distance between roots and the generalization for the roots of z^n = a+bi, where /a+bi/ = 1

How can you prove them?

I heard that the conjecture can be proved analytically but I don't know what does analytically mean.

Edited by bomaha
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Bomaha,

generalizing.. basically what you do you dont need to prove really...you just put down an example and you should be fine...think of the magnitude od a+bi when it equals 1...so that if you have done the other parts it should be very easy to come to the conclusion..the unit circle thing helps a lot for the answer...if you are still not ask again...

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